14:34 Dec 13, 2013 |
English language (monolingual) [PRO] Medical - Medical (general) | |||||||
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| Selected response from: Tony M France Local time: 00:08 | ||||||
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SUMMARY OF ALL EXPLANATIONS PROVIDED | ||||
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2 +6 | unlikely |
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4 | It refers to both (back pain and pubic bone) |
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Discussion entries: 2 | |
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It refers to both (back pain and pubic bone) Explanation: IMHO, I think that it refers to pain in both places (the back and the pubic bone) ... |
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unlikely Explanation: I'd say, from the purely lingusiitic point of view, it is unlikely. For a text that needs to be precise and unambiguous, as is the case here in medical, if 'more' was meant to apply to BOTH pains, then it ough to have been written "She has more backpain (DL transition) and more pain in left pubic bone." It remains to be seen whether precision is a prime consideration here; strictly speaking, they ought to have written 'greater', otherwise 'more' might be construed as implying 'ongoing' (i.e. more in time) rather than quantitively. But instinctively, I think the 'more' refers to the first pain only. -------------------------------------------------- Note added at 18 mins (2013-12-13 14:52:44 GMT) -------------------------------------------------- If it had been intended to refer to both, it might also have been written: "She has more pain in the back (DL transition) and in the left pubic bone." |
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