Glossary entry

Latin term or phrase:

Ex uno disce omnia

English translation:

from one (example), learn all

Added to glossary by Joseph Brazauskas
Jan 6, 2009 14:33
15 yrs ago
Latin term
Change log

Jan 9, 2009 14:30: Joseph Brazauskas Created KOG entry

Discussion

Svetla Chorbadzhieva (asker) Jan 7, 2009:
more context And this excess of chimerical feet is perhaps the very least of the scholastic supererogations. Ex uno disce omnia. The fact is that quantity is a point in whose investigation the lumber of mere learning may be dispensed with, if ever in any.
Stephen C. Farrand Jan 7, 2009:
Omnes vs. Omnia Ms. Ellen Kraus's calling for an emendation above (from omnes to omnia) is quite unnecessary. A check of the phrase via Google and Google Scholar produces about a dozen examples of it from 19th century publications. Moreover, I am convinced that the complaint about the quality of the Latin concerns the deviation from the underlying original in the Aeneid, not that the Latin itself is unintelligible.

The original question was to explain the Latin quote (i.e. to translate it). It clearly made sense to a variety of people in the 19th century, most of whom (but not all) were native speakers of English. And in all cases it refers to things or events, not people.
Ellen Kraus Jan 6, 2009:
triumphantly in a Latin, even worse than his logic. > This means that Mr. Ch used the ancient Latin phrase whose translation is < from one learn (about them) all>, wrongly.
Ellen Kraus Jan 6, 2009:
I venture to argue that the term should read ex uno disce omnes. Nur diesen Ausspruch fand ich unter Latin Phrases, compiled by Answers Corp. belegt. As to the phrase <ex uno disce omnia>, I found it under "ex uno disce omnia, adds Mr. Ch., triumphantly
Stephen C. Farrand Jan 6, 2009:
Ambiguous Gender in Latin I am a little surprised by the number of posters who are ignoring the gender of omnia in the original post. The original in Virgil (accipe nunc Danaum insidias et crimine ab uno / disce omnis) has clear antecedents for uno and omnis (= omnes) both. But our quote does not; both uno and omnia must be NEUTER, referring to things, not to people. Ex + uno masculine is a very odd concept.

I would compare the motto of the United States (also Virgilian in origin) e pluribus unum. No one ever translates that as "from many people, one".

I put it to you that 1) the phrase as posted makes perfect sense (although I am not certain that ex, instead of ab, is classical idiom); 2) Joseph's is the only translation that conveys the original's meaning clearly.

Proposed translations

+3
16 mins
Selected

from one (example), learn all

'Vno' may refer to a person, thing, or event. It isn't clear because it can be construed as masculine or neuter. But the obvious meaning is that one may judge all of the same type by reference to one example of such.
Peer comment(s):

agree Stephen C. Farrand : Absolutely; = "one example suffices". This is, of course, either a logical shorthand or a fallacious sort of reasoning. A glance at Google indicates no example older than 1824 (The Gentleman's Magazine).
19 mins
Thank you.
neutral Ellen Kraus : what do you understand by all ? all examples " that´s very unlikely, indeed
1 hr
Why is it unlikely?
agree Celia Bodnar
2 hrs
Thank you.
agree Rebecca Garber : This is the only answer that matches the original question. Had we more context, the other answers might prove conclusivey correct.
3 hrs
I concur. Thank you.
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4 KudoZ points awarded for this answer. Comment: "thank you very much!"
+1
6 mins

From one person shall learn all

I think this would be the best way to put this
Peer comment(s):

agree Joseph Brazauskas : It's possible./Minus the 'shall'.
10 mins
Something went wrong...
7 mins

from one person learn all persons

But i should read omnes (instead of omnia, unless you wish to say from ..... you learn everything )

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Note added at 10 Min. (2009-01-06 14:44:09 GMT)
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OMNES instead of omnia (the latter being the neutral plural of omnium )
Peer comment(s):

neutral Joseph Brazauskas : Supposing that persons are referred to, yes. But that isn't clear.
10 mins
I am almost sure that is a mistake in this context, because the Latin phrase with is a frequently used standing term, whereas a translation with is unclear what is to be understood by ? All examples ? that makes no sense.
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+2
21 mins

from one (person) you can get to know all men/the whole species

It could also mean this, based on similar proverbs.

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Note added at 23 mins (2009-01-06 14:57:25 GMT)
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Ab uno disce omne: ‘por un individuo se conoce a toda la especie’

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Note added at 32 mins (2009-01-06 15:06:24 GMT)
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ab uno disce omnes From Virgil's Aeneid. Refers to situations where a single example or observation indicates a general or universal truth.
Peer comment(s):

agree Stephen C. Farrand : Aeneid II, describing Sinon: undique visendi studio Troiana iuventus / circumfusa ruit certantque inludere capto. / accipe nunc Danaum insidias et crimine ab uno / disce omnis. This explains why one early referent remarks on the bad Latin.
34 mins
Thanks!
agree Joseph Brazauskas : However, the text as given in the question reads 'omnia'.
2 hrs
Thanks Joseph.
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